Solve (1/4)^6*(frac{1}2^2):(2/2)=

$$( \frac { 1 } { 4 } ) ^ { 6 } \times ( \frac { 1 } { 2 } ^ { 2 } ) : ( \frac { 2 } { 2 } ) =$$

Evaluate

$$\frac{1}{16384}\approx 0.000061035$$

Solution Steps

Divide 2 by 2 to get 1.

$$\frac{\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{6}\times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}}{1}$$

Calculate \frac{1}{4} to the power of 6 and get \frac{1}{4096}.

$$\frac{\frac{1}{4096}\times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}}{1}$$

Calculate \frac{1}{2} to the power of 2 and get \frac{1}{4}.

$$\frac{\frac{1}{4096}\times \frac{1}{4}}{1}$$

Multiply \frac{1}{4096} times \frac{1}{4} by multiplying numerator times numerator and denominator times denominator.

$$\frac{\frac{1\times 1}{4096\times 4}}{1}$$

Do the multiplications in the fraction \frac{1\times 1}{4096\times 4}.

$$\frac{\frac{1}{16384}}{1}$$

Anything divided by one gives itself.

$$\frac{1}{16384}$$

Factor

$$\frac{1}{2 ^ {14}} = 6.103515624999999 \times 10^{-5}$$